Why did the demographic transition begin in France, when England industrialized earlier? To Xeet That’s the question that inspired me to write this article. Or rather, it’s the question that inspired the answer that inspired me to write this article. The answer says that “secularization” caused the demographic transition to begin earlier in France than in Britain. The inquirer takes this as given. But something is off here. Can you see what it is? Something is odd about the answer … There’s something hiding in plain sight that shows it’s wrong. Here’s what:
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